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mrveggieman
04-09-2012, 02:03 PM
Here's something that I always wondered about. In Matthew 27:45 Jesus is quoted as saying "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" My question is why would Jesus say something like that if he knew God had his back and if he is the son of God? Was he doubting God? Did he actualy believe that God forsake him? I am looking to get a wide range of opinions from all so please chime with your opinions? Thanks.

Star_Cards
04-09-2012, 02:18 PM
maybe he didn't know god was his father or Maybe he saw joseph as more of a father since god was a deadbeat dad. :)

Wickabee
04-09-2012, 02:25 PM
It was at that moment that God's spirit left him so he could die a perfect human on his own, without the help of God's spirit.

duane1969
04-09-2012, 04:21 PM
He was not praying to God. He was speaking the 22nd Psalm. He only uttered the first verse, presumably because he spoke the rest internally or under his breath.

Also, he was near death, it is logical that he only had the strength to utter the first line.

shrewsbury
04-09-2012, 04:37 PM
ding, ding, ding, you are correct!!!

mrveggieman
04-09-2012, 04:41 PM
He was not praying to God. He was speaking the 22nd Psalm. He only uttered the first verse, presumably because he spoke the rest internally or under his breath.

Also, he was near death, it is logical that he only had the strength to utter the first line.


That makes sense. Anyone else got any further thoughts or opinions?

joeyfan22
04-09-2012, 04:58 PM
http://carm.org/questions/about-jesus/why-did-jesus-cry-out-my-god-my-god-why-have-you-forsaken-me